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Post by Yellow Eye on Jul 1, 2009 1:46:12 GMT
This is more math, but... Okay, so a number to the power of 0 = 1, right?
What about 0 to the power of 0? Shouldn't that equal 1 as well?
But it doesn't...weird, hey?
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Post by Mangopie on Jul 1, 2009 6:08:07 GMT
Because the calculator says so!
Umm..because you can't divide by zero..
We get y0=1 from: ya × y-a (where a>0) =ya × 1/ya =1
If y=0, it would mean
0a × 0-a =0a × 1/0a
which is not possible, because the latter part of the equation means 0 would have to be a denominator. And that's not possible..
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Post by Archer on Jul 8, 2009 9:06:38 GMT
Well you could say that the equation is undefined.It means nothing can explain that particular equation and the equation cannot be right also....
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